I will offer my rudimentary understanding and if Liberthea Anadara (nprofile…ndka) has any additional nuggets to share, she will add. Yes when you read the entire chapter it's God addressing the "gods" which some bible scholars and theologians believe to be angelic beings, because the word translated gods could also be used to refer to angels. Others think it's referring to human judges in the earth and even some translations render it as such. The only problem is how Christ interpreted this verse negates both explanations above and you can see it below:
John 10:31-36
[31] Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. [32] Jesus answered them, “Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?” [33] The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.” [34] Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, “You are gods” ’? [35] If He called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), [36] do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?
So the question becomes, who is right, The Lord Jesus or the scholars? I will leave that to you to decide.
