rich1.0Laeserin (npub1m4…jc2jl)https://nostr.ae/npub1m4ny6hjqzepn4rxknuq94c2gpqzr29ufkkw7ttcxyak7v43n6vvsajc2jlnjumphttps://nostr.aeThere is no flaw. A particular rich man is not necessarily more virtuous than a poor man, but the most-virtuous rich man will be more virtuous than the most-virtuous poor man because he has more capacity to be so. He can give the entirety of his money away and that is more money in absolute terms, even if it is the same amount in relative terms (100%).